Tithing: ARE We Robbing God? Part II

by Leisa Garcia

(GO TO:  Tithing: ARE we Robbing God? Part I)

Did Jesus say we should tithe?

A scripture passage that some use to "prove" that tithing applies to the Body of Christ is Matthew 23:23 and it's parallel passage in Luke 11:42:

"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cumin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith:  these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone."

"But woe unto you, Pharisees! for ye tithe mint and rue and all manner of herbs, and pass over judgment and the love of God:  these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone."

So let's look at these verses point by point:

1.  When:  This is during Jesus' ministry on Earth, before His crucifixion and resurrection.  At this time the Mosaic Law was still in effect.  Even Jesus--especially Jesus--followed the Mosaic Law during this time, (Although He didn't follow the man-made regulations that were added to it, which were forbidden by the Law in Deuteronomy 4:2.)

Galatians 4:4,5 "But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons."

2.  Who:  Jesus was speaking to the Scribes and Pharisees who were also under the Law at this point.  He was not speaking to the body of Christ, which did not exist yet. (See The "Church" in the Wilderness)  He was NOT speaking to the disciples.

3.  What:  What He did say?  He said that they tithed of all manner of herbs.  As we learned in Part I, they were to tithe the firstfruits of all of their produce and the firstborn of all of their livestock.  Herbs would be considered produce.  Apparently, the Scribes and Pharisees felt pretty smug that they not only tithed of all of the typical main produce, but also of the seemingly insignificant and small herbs.

What He did NOT say:  He did not say that they should give 10 percent of their money.  As we know from part I, the tithe NEVER consisted of money, it was always the increase GOD had given them through the produce and livestock, which only God could do.  Man could not make produce grow or new animals to be conceived and born.

Then this is the part that is focused on--Jesus said "this ye ought to have done..."  They say, see, Jesus said we should tithe!  Well we've seen so far, he said this while all of them were under the Law.  He did not say this to the disciples or to the Body of Christ which did not exist yet.

He was telling the scribes and Pharisees that yes, they should tithe of the firstfruits of all of their produce and livestock, but they shouldn't have "omitted the weightier parts of THE LAW."

If this applies to the Body of Christ, then He would be saying we should obey ALL of the Mosaic Law, all 613 laws.  However, we know that the Body of Christ is NOT under the Law.  We are not required to follow the Law.

Although obviously included in the Law--Judgment, Mercy and Faith are not exclusive to the Law, and the Body of Christ is to have right judgment, and to have mercy and faith--not because its demanded in the Law, but because it is part of being a believer in God and is commanded and expected throughout history, not just during the time of the Law.  (See:  Are You a Dispensationalist?)

There is nothing in this passage that proves the Body of Christ has been commanded by Christ to tithe.  And even if you supposed, for the sake of argument, that He did, that would mean we should be tithing as described in the Law, which does not include money.

Tithing: ARE we Robbing God? Part I

by Leisa Garcia

I was taught when I was very little from the first time I was given any money of any kind that I was to first pay 10 percent to God, that it belonged to Him.  I never questioned it and assumed the Bible specifically required this, even though I never looked it up for myself until much later.  I was surprise to learn after I had become an adult, that no where in scripture does it say that believers/members of the body of Christ are to pay ten percent of their income to the Lord.

The passage in Malachi which was God speaking to the nation of Israel under the Law is used by many pastors to shame their congregation into giving 10% of their income.  Making them feel guilty that if they don't pay that 10% they are ROBBING GOD!  

I can find no where in Scripture where it instructs believers to tithe of their finances  But don't take my word for it, let's search the scriptures and see if this is so. (Acts 17:11)

What is a tithe?  The Levitical Law gave very specific instructions regarding the "tithe."

1. The first tithe was that 10% must be given to the Levites, which was the ministerial, priestly Tribe of Levi, in order to maintain the Temple worship.

Numbers 18:21-24 "And behold, I have given the children of Levi all the tenth in Israel for an inheritance, for their service which they serve, even the service of the tabernacle of the congregation. 

v22 Neither must the children of Israel henceforth come nigh the tabernacle of the congregation, lest they bear sin, and die.

v23 But the Levites shall do the service of the tabernacle of the congregation, and they shall bear their iniquity, it shall be a statute FOREVER throughout your generations that among the children of Israel they have no inheritance. 

v24 But the tithes of the children of Israel, which they offer as a heave offering unto the Lord, I have given to the Levites to inherit:  therefore I have said unto them, Among the children of Israel they shall have no inheritance."
 

The Levites were given this 10 percent as their inheritance, whereas the rest of the tribes of Israel had specific land given to them as their inheritance.

2) The second tithe Israel was required to pay was to support the Festivals and Sacrifices.

Deuteronomy 12:5-7, 10-19 "But unto the place which the Lord your God shall choose out of all your tribes to put his name there, even unto his habitation shall ye seek, and thither thou shalt come: 

v6 And thither ye shall bring your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, and your tithes, and heave offerings of your hand, and your vows, and your freewill offerings, and the firstlings of your herds and of your flocks: 

v7 And there ye shall eat before the Lord your God, and ye shall rejoice in all that ye put your hand unto, ye and your households, wherein the Lord thy God hath blessed thee... 

v10 ...But when ye go over Jordan, and dwell in the land which the Lord your God giveth you to inherit, and when he giveth you rest from all your enemies round about, so that ye dwell in safety;

 v11 Then there shall be a place which the Lord your God shall choose to cause his name to dwell there (which turns out to be Jerusalem) thither shall ye bring all that I command you: your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, your tithes, and the heave offering of your hand, and all your choice vows which ye vow unto the Lord." 

v17 Thou mayest not eat within thy gates the tithe of thy corn, or of thy wine, or of thy oil, or the firstlings of thy herds or of thy flock, nor any of they vows which thou vowest, nor thy freewill offerings, or heave offering of thine hand. 

v18  BUT thou must eat them before the Lord thy God in the place which the Lord thy God shall choose, thou, and thy son, and thy daughter, and thy manservant, and they maidservant, and the Levite that is within thy gates..." 

They were to bring tithes of their corn, wine, oil and firstlings of their herds or flocks.

Another passage regarding the same tithe is in Deuteronomy 14:22-26: 

"Thou shall truly tithe all the increase of thy seed, that the field bringeth forth year by year. 

v23 And thou shalt eat before the Lord thy God, in the place which he shall choose to place his name there, the tithe of thy corn, of thy wine, and of thine oil, and the firstlings of thy herds and of thy flocks; that thou mayest learn to fear the Lord they God always. 

Notice, there is NO mention of money of any kind, and whatever the tithe was had to be edible, because you were to eat it in the presence of the Lord.

In fact verses 24-26 makes this very clear:

v24 And if the way be too long for thee, so that thou art not able to carry it; or if the place be too far from thee, which the Lord they God, shall choose to set his name there, when the Lord thy God hath blessed thee: 

v25 Then shalt thou turn it into money, and bind up the money in thine hand, and shalt go unto the place which the Lord thy God shall choose: 

v26 And thou shalt bestow that money for whatsoever thy soul lustesth after, for oxen, or for sheep or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth and thou shall eat there before the Lord thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household.“

If the way was too long to transport all of their produce and livestock, they were to turn it into money to make it easier to carry, but when they arrived at their destination, they were to use it to purchase produce and livestock and any other consumable items (even strong drink), and to eat and drink it before the Lord.

3. The third tithe was that 10 percent must be collected every third year for the poor according to Deuteronomy 14:28-29: 

"At the end of three years thou shalt bring forth all the tithe of thine increase the same year, and shalt lay it up within thy gates. 

v29 And the Levite, (because he hath no part nor inheritance with thee.) and the stranger, and the fatherless, and the widow, which are within thy gates, shall come and shall eat and be satisfied; that the Lord thy God may bless thee in all the work of thine hand which thou doest." 

This third tithe was similar to what we would call a food bank.  It was for the poor.  The poor did not pay any tithe.

So, the 1^st and 2^nd tithe were given once a year, but the third tithe was given every three years which equals a tithe of 33.33% per year--Not 10%!

 

Summary of Tithing According to the Mosaic/Levitical Law

1. The instructions for tithing only allowed for edible tithes, produce from the harvest, and new life from the livestock.  Money was NEVER given as a tithe.
2. The 1^st 10 percent was to provide for the Levites; The 2^nd 10 percent was enjoyed by everyone in the Lord’s presence!--THE FIRST POTLUCK! 
3. The 3^rd 10 percent was for the poor—the strangers, fatherless, widows, etc.  The poor NEVER paid a tithe they were the RECIPIENTS of the tithe!
4. Each tithe had a very specific purpose, and no human being decided how to distribute the tithe, God said exactly what to do with each tithe.
5. The first two tithes were only paid ONCE per year at the end of harvest. (not every week or every month)
6. The third tithe was paid ONCE every three years.

Let me ask you this--If you pay your tithe, do you follow ANY of the directions above? 

(GO TO: Tithing: ARE We Robbing God? Part II)

To Judge or Not to Judge

by Leisa Garcia

The confusion regarding what scripture truly teaches as to when to judge, when not to judge, what should be judged and what should not be judged is largely due to the same English word being used to translate a variety of Greek verbs and nouns.  There are three Greek verbs that mean “to judge” in the New Testament.  Krino κρίνω¹ is the primary verb that means “to judge” in general and can be used in a variety of ways.  “Anakrino” and “diakrino” are two specific variations of the main verb.  Anakrino ἀνακρίνω²generally means to investigate thoroughly and diakrino διακρίνω³ to render a decision.

Judge not that ye be not judged

The Greek word “krino” is the primary verb meaning “to judge” and is used in one of the most well-known, but misused verses regarding judging -- Matthew 7:1.  The phrase “judge not that ye be not judged” is often ripped from its context and quoted as a blanket statement.   We assume that Jesus is giving us a direct command--“Don’t Judge!”  However, when compared with its parallel passage in Luke 6:37 and 38 we see that the point of this passage is clearly the aspect of sowing and reaping.

The confusion occurs because Matthew has condensed a longer passage into just a few verses.  When compared with the Luke passage, verse three of Matthew which begins “And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother’s eye…” is actually a new topic.  The Luke passage contains additional information.

Luke 6:37,38

“--Judge not that ye be not judged,  (The Matthew passage then skips the rest of the discussion)

--Condemn not, and ye shall not be condemned,

--Forgive, and ye shall be forgiven,

--Give and it shall be given unto you.  Good measure, pressed down, and shaken together, and running over, shall men give into your bosom…”

Conclusion of all the above:  “For with the same measure that ye mete withal it shall be measured to you again.”

What you sow whether in judging or not judging, condemning or not condemning, forgiving or not forgiving, giving or not giving, you can expect to reap the same and more.  This passage corresponds with Matthew 6 verses one and two only.  Verse three is a different topic which we haven’t come to in the Luke passage yet.

Do not judge hypocritically

Notice verse 39 in the Luke passage:  “And he spake a parable unto them, Can the blind lead the blind?  Shall they not both fall into the ditch?”  This verse introduces a new topic!  Close attention to this passage shows that verse three in the Matthew passage is not a direct part of what was being discussed in verses two and three of Matthew 7.  Matthew 7:3 corresponds to this new topic of the blind leading the blind.

Verse 40 “The disciple is not above his master:  but everyone that is perfect shall be as his master.”  The point here appears to be that the disciple will be like his master, if the master is blind, the disciple will be also, if the master is perfect (complete), the disciple will be perfect also.

Now we finally have reached a slightly different wording of what is in verse three of the Matthew passage:  Luke 6:41, 42“And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother’s eye, but perceiveth not the beam that is in thine own eye?  Either how canst thou say to thy brother, Brother, let me pull out the mote that is in thine eye, when thou thyself beholdest not the beam that is in thine own eye?  Thou hypocrite, (hupo krites) cast out first the beam out of thine own eye, and then shalt thou see clearly to pull out the mote that is in thy brother’s eye.”

Starting with verse 39 through verse 42 in the Luke passage is giving an illustration of the wrong way to judge.  We are commanded to not be a hypocrite ὑποκριτής--a pretender, a stage actor.⁴   The message of this passage is that as the blind cannot lead the blind because he can’t see any better than the person he is trying to lead, a person with a beam in his own eye is like the blind person, he can’t see to take the speck out of his brother’s eye.

How to take the speck out of your brother’s eye

Starting with Matthew 7:4  and Luke 7:42, Jesus clearly gives instructions in both the Matthew and Luke passages HOW TO judge in a non-hypocritical manner, by judging yourself first, (taking the beam out of your own eye) which makes you able to then see correctly to judge your brother (taking the speck out of his eye).

Taking the beam out of your own eye, judging yourself and correcting the problem first will prevent you from being judged by others as Paul states in 1 Corinthians 11:31 “For if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged.”

Galatians 6:1 gives us more detail on how to remove the speck out of your brother’s eye once the beam is out of your own eye:  “Brethren, if a man be overtaken in a fault, ye which are spiritual, restore such a one in the spirit of meekness; considering thyself, lest thou also be tempted.”

Taking the beam out of your own eye is one sign of the spiritual maturity referred to by the phrase “ye which are spiritual.”  Taking the speck out of your brother’s eye (any sin/fault) is done in a loving, non-condemning manner with a sincere desire to help your brother. 

In Matthew 18:15-17, Jesus gives us instructions on what to do when the trespass (sin) is against us personally.  “Moreover if thy brother shall trespass against thee, go and tell him his fault between thee and him alone:  if he shall hear thee, thou hast gained thy brother.  But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.  And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church:⁵ but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as a heathen man and a publican.”

Bringing the matter before the church leads us to the next Greek verb (diakrino) that is translated as “judge” in 1 Corinthians 6:5-6.  Paul states “I speak to your shame.  Is it so, that there is not a wise man among you?  No, not one that shall be able to judge (diakrino) between his brethren.  But brother goeth to law with brother, and that before the unbelievers.”

The Greek verb “diakrino” in this passage means to determine, give judgment, or decide a dispute.  The Corinthian believers were bringing their disputes to be judged in the courts by unbelievers. This is a command to judge or settle disputes within the church instead of going to the court system to settle a civil law dispute.

 

However, Paul goes even further to state that the preferred method would be to rather take wrong and to allow yourself be defrauded.


What are we commanded to judge? How do we go about judging? 

In 1 Corinthians 2:15, Paul states that “he that is spiritual judgeth (anakrino) all things….”  The Greek verb is anakrino, which means to judge--as in investigate, examine, enquire into, scrutinize, etc.  Notice, we judge all things, not all people. 

Anakrino is also the Greek word translated “searched” in Acts 17:11: “…they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched (anakrino) the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.” 

The Bereans conducted a thorough investigation of what Paul was teaching, scrutinizing every detail by comparing it to the Word of God.  We are to judge all teaching from all teachers according to the word of God whether the teaching is the truth, or if it is not (false teaching).

1 Corinthians 14:29 instructs us to judge the words of the prophet or the prophecy.  “Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge (diakrino).”  There are two ways to judge or render a decision as to whether what the prophet says is truly from God and not from his own mind. 

1.  Does the prophesy agree with the Word of God?  Does it contradict anything clearly stated?

Jesus tells us that we are to not judge “according to the appearance” but to judge “righteous judgment” in John 7:24.  We all know how appearance can be deceiving.  We cannot judge the intentions, motivations of the heart or the thoughts of the minds of anyone because only God knows that.  God doesn’t judge by appearance because“…the Lord seeth not as man seeth; for man looketh on the outward appearance, but the LORD looketh on the heart.”  1 Samuel 16:7.

When we judge according to the Word of God, we are judging with righteous judgment.  In reality, we aren’t the ones doing the judging, the Word of God is what judges the teaching or behavior of a person.

Above all, we speak the truth in love  “But speaking the truth in love, may grow up into him in all things, which is the head, [even] Christ.”  Ephesians 4:15.  Speaking the truth in love--sound doctrine given in a loving manner--is an evidence of maturity in the believer.

2.  If the prophesy is actually of a predictive nature--of something to happen in the future, does it come to pass?

God, in Deuteronomy 18:21-22, tells the Israelites how to judge a prophet:  “And if thou say in thine heart, How shall we know the word which the LORD hath not spoken?  When a prophet speaketh in the name of the LORD, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which the LORD hath NOT spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously:  thou shalt not be afraid of him.” 

If someone proclaims himself to be a prophet or to have the gift of prophecy, what they state as being from God must be 100% accurate.  Any less and you can be confident that what they are proclaiming is not the Word of God.
  
Judging the teachings of False Teachers

Paul warned in Acts 20:29 “after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock.  Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking perverse things to draw away disciples after them.”  In addition to many references in Paul’s epistles, (Jude 3 & 4), the Apostle John (2 John 7-11), and Peter (2 Peter 2:1-2) all confirm that this indeed did happen and has continued to this day just as Paul warned.

The shepherds of the flock of God--pastors, evangelists, and other teachers of the Word of God need to point out the false teaching and to warn and protect the flock from the false teachers.  There are relatively few who actually do this and those who are faithful to do this are often chastised and condemned.

See:  Touch Not God's Anointed
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WORKS CITED

¹ "krino" def. 1-5. BlueLetterBible.org. Web. 4 July 2011
    http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2919&t=KJV

² "anakrino" def. 1.  BlueLetterBible.org. Web. 4 July 2011
    http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G350&t=KJV


³ "diakrino" def. 1-2.  BlueLetterBible.org. Web. 4 July 2011
    http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1252&t=KJV


 ⁴ "hypocrite" def. 2-3.  BlueLetterBible.org. Web 5 July 2011
    http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G5273&t=KJV

⁵ The "church" in this passage isn't specifically the Church/Ekklesia as in the Body of Christ. because at this point, it didn't exist. This "called out assembly" would most likely be the synagogue or a specific group of Jewish leaders. However, once the church was born, it would be correct for believers to take it to the Church/Ekklesia of Christ as Paul indeed teaches. For detailed discussion on the Ekklesia of Christ see: The "Church" in the Wilderness

Is Contemplative Prayer Biblical Prayer?

by Leisa Garcia

In 2 Corinthians 2:11, Paul takes it for granted that the Corinthians are “not ignorant of his (Satan’s) devices.” Sadly, a large portion of the church today appears to be vastly ignorant of Satan’s devices. 

Deuteronomy 18:10-11 gives a list of occult or pagan practices which are an abomination to God. Many of these have been disguised by being given positive-sounding names or simply adding the word “Christian” to them such as “Christian Yoga” in effect producing “Christianized Abominations.”  One such practice is called centering or contemplative prayer, which isn't prayer at all, but mystical meditation

What is the Biblical definition of prayer?

There are a number of different words translated "pray" "praying" or "prayer" in the New Testament Greek.  Many of which simply mean to make a request of either man or God.  Two of these are "Eratao" and "Deomae."

“Erotao” ἐρωτάω is a verb that simply means to ask, request, beg.   It is used in passages such as Luke 5:3 "And he entered into one of the ships, which was Simon's, and prayed him that he would thrust out a little from the land.  And he sat down, and taught the people out of the ship."  (John 17:15; Acts 10:48; 1 John 5:16 and many others)

“Deomae” δέομαι is a verbal/gerund which means--wanting, desiring, asking, begging, beseech, make requests.”  2 Corinthians 8:4 "Praying us with much entreaty that we would receive the gift, and take upon us the fellowship of the ministering to the saints." (Galatians 4:12; Acts 8:22; 1 Thessalonians 3:10 and many others) 

However, the next word, “Proseuche” προσευχή is a noun which actually means "a prayer addressed to God."  Romans 12:12  "Rejoicing in hope, patient in tribulation, continuing instant in prayer"   (Luke 19:46; Acts 12:5; Philippians 4:6;  and many others) 

"Proseuchomai," προσεύχομαι  is a verb that means to offer up prayers (to God). Mark 11:24 "Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ye pray, believe that ye receive them, and ye shall have them." (James 5:13; Hebrews 13:18; 1 Timothy 2:8 and many others)

Characteristics of Biblical Prayer 

The characteristic of scriptural prayer is making requests directed to God.  Phillipians 4:6 "Be careful for nothing; but in everything by prayer and supplication with thanksgiving let your requests be made known unto God."

Using language and words.  Matthew 6:9-13 (The Lord's Prayer)

Your desires, your mind, your thoughts, etc.  1 John 5:14, 15 "And this is the confidence that we have in him, that, if we ask anything according to his will, he heareth us:  And if we know that he hear us, whatsoever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we desired of him." 

Prayer is our communication to God.  This is in contrast to reading, studying and meditating on God's word, which is God speaking to us.

Comparison of Biblical Prayer with Contemplative Prayer

Biblical Prayer	Centering / Contemplative Prayer
Makes Requests to God	Makes no Requests
Uses the Mind, Desires and Conscious Thought	Conscious thoughts are considered undesirable
Uses words to communicate our requests	A word or phrase is only used to eliminate thought
GOAL:  To communicate with God, to express our needs and desires; and to receive an answer from God.	GOAL:  To reach “The Silence” when all distracting thoughts are gone, a thin place where the spiritual barrier is the thinnest, where you can contemplate God with your soul NOT with your intellect.

See also:  The Origins of Centering/Contemplative Prayer--Kundalini

The "Church" in the Wilderness

by Leisa Garcia

Recommended to read first:  One New Man

Acts 7:38  “This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sanai, and with our fathers, who received the lively oracles to give unto us.

There are many in the Hebrew/Jewish Roots movement who believe that the church existed in the Old Testament, that Israel WAS the church, is the church now, and always will be the church.  They use this passage as a proof text.  The King James Version uses the word “church” in this verse.  (So does the ASV & the WEB).  At first glance, it appears to be an error in translation, but the translators really did have a logical reason for using the word "church."

The Greek word "ekklesia," which is translated "church" in this passage, is often translated as such in the New Testament meaning "a gathering of citizens called out from their homes into a public place--an assembly or any gathering or throng of men assembled by chance, tumultuously."¹

In Volume Four of Dr. Norman Geisler’s “Systematic Theology” he states:

“In classical Greek, ekklesia referred to an assembly of any kind, religious or secular, lawful or unlawful.  The Hebrew words qahal and edhal, often translated as ‘ekklesia’ in the Greek Old Testament, meant a gathering or assembly such as Judaism eventually had in the synogague²

Our English word “church” originates from the Greek word κυριακός "Kyriakos"--which means “belonging to the Lord.”³ That is exactly what the Ekklesia is, The Ekklesia of Christ, the one that belongs to Christ the Lord.  Choosing to translate “called-out assembly” as “church” when it is the Ekklesia of Christ makes sense because the Ekklesia of Christ belongs to the Lord. But technically it isn't a translation of the word ekklesia.   It would have been more prudent to translate the Greek word ekklesia according to it's actual meaning of a "called-out assembly."  Then the type of assembly would be determined by the context, as it still should be now.  Unfortunately, using the word "church" creates unnecessary confusion.

It also makes sense why the KJV translates the “ekklesia” in the wilderness as “church.”  It was a called-out assembly of the nation of Israel “who belonged to God” as a nation, however it most certainly DOES NOT make that gathering the equivalent or interchangeable with the Ekklesia of Christ which is a very specific ekklesia for the following reasons:

FACT #1:  There are various ekklesai  (plural of ekklesia) and assemblies.   It must be determined by context, what type of assembly is being spoken of. 

FACT #2:  There is a specific Ekklesia which is the Ekklesia belonging to Christ.  It is NOT equal to any other types of ekklesai.  (Matthew 16:18)

FACT #3:  The Ekklesia belonging to Christ, is synonymous with the Body of Christ.  The Ekklesia IS the Body of Christ.  (Ephesians 1:22,23; Colossians 1:18,24) 

FACT #4:  The Ekklesia is made up of ONLY believers.  (The Nation of Israel was made up of believers AND unbelievers)

(Ephesians 4:12,13; Acts 1:47; Romans 12:5; 1 Cor. 10:16,17; I Cor. 12:13,27)

FACT #5:  The Ekklesia of Christ is built upon the Apostles and (New Testament) Prophets with Jesus Christ being the Chief Cornerstone.

(Ephesians 3:5; Ephesians 2:20)

FACT #6:  The Jews as a nation, the Gentiles as nations, and the Ekklesia of God are three separate entities.  (1 Cor. 10:32)

They are spoken of separately again and again.  The Ekklesia IS NOT the equivalent of the nation of Israel, it is NOT the equivalent of the Jew and Gentile nations put together.  None of the three are synonymous.  There is the Nation of Israel, there are the Gentile nations and there is the Ekklesia of God (of Christ) which is made up of ONLY believers  taken from both Israel and the Gentile nations as proven in Fact #4.

FACT #7:  Israel as a nation are the People of God, but individually only a small number have ever been true believers.  This group has historically been called “the remnant.” 

(Romans 11:5)

FACT #8:  Jesus states:  Upon this rock (himself, the cornerstone) I WILL build my Ekklesia (Church).  The Ekklesia is built upon a foundation made up of Jesus Christ as the cornerstone and the New Testament Apostles and Prophets. 

The Ekklesia is built upon the foundation.  That foundation (Fact #5) could not exist until Jesus rose from the dead and the Holy Spirit came upon the Ekklesia at pentecost.

The Ekklesia of Christ could not exist until the foundation had been laid, so it could be built upon the foundation.  It could not have existed before.  A foundation is the first thing made the building is built upon it, the building could not exist until the foundation was first laid.

FACT #9:  “I WILL build” is translated from the Greek word οἰκοδομήσω which is in the Future Tense. 

At the time Jesus spoke these words in Matthew 17:18, what he was speaking of was still something that would happen in the future.  The Ekklesia could not have existed before.  Future means future.

Greek Lesson:

The most important part of Greek verbs is the ending of the verb, the ending of the verb tells us more than one thing, but what is important in this instance is the sigma σ.  This is called a tense formative.  The sigma is the tense formative that tells us the verb is in the future tense.

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Works Cited

¹"ekklesia.” def 1(c).   BlueLetterBible.org. Web.

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1577&t=KJV

²Geisler, Norman.  Systematic Theology:  Volume Four – Church, Last Things. pg 17.  Minneapolis:  Bethany House. 2005.  Print.

³"kyriacos." def 1-2.  BlueLetterBible.org. Web.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2960&t=KJV

One New Man

"The teaching of Scripture is against both total separation from the local church and separation by forming strictly Hebrew Christian congregations.  The local church must be composed where possible of both Jewish and Gentile believers working together for the cause of Christ."  -- Dr. Arnold Fruchtenbaum

In Ephesians 2:15-16 Paul said that Christ made it possible, through his death on the cross, for the Jews and the Gentiles to join together into “One New Man.”  They joined together as a singular, never before existing entity, one body--the body of Christ.

“Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances;  for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; and that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby.”

However, Christ’s Ekklesia  (The Greek word usually translated “church”) has been divided for various reason starting as early as the 2^nd Century A.D. where the increasingly Gentile-dominated church began to insist that Jews must renounce everything Jewish to become a believer.  In essence the Gentile church was attempting to turn Jews into Gentiles.

This is an impossibility because according to the scriptural definition of a Jew* you must be a physical descendent of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.    This should not be confused with Judaism which is the religion practiced by Jews.  

Likewise, the scriptural definition for a Gentile is anyone who is NOT a physical descendent of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.  Gentiles practice many different religions and have many different ethnicities, but it is their non-Jewishness that makes them “Gentile.”

This attempt to turn Jews into Gentiles forced those Jews who refused to follow this unscriptural practice to segregate into “Jewish believer only” congregations and were subjected to persecution by their own Christian brothers and sisters in Christ.  With few exceptions this continued throughout the past 2000 years. 

The teachings of Covenant Theology in its three forms:  PostMillennial, Amillennial and PreMillennial , all reflect the belief that the Jews as a nation have been replaced at some point in time.  Central to this belief is that there has been, is, and always will be ONLY one people of God.  In other words they believe that the Nation of Israel and the Ekklesia of Christ cannot coexist as separate peoples of God.

Covenant Theologians read the Ekklesia back into the Old Testament into the Nation of Israel.  They believe that the Nation of Israel was a manifestation of the Ekklesia in some form and then when Christ came, the nation of Israel no longer were the people of God.  In essence, they teach that the People of God have always been the Ekklesia, are the Ekklesia and always will be the Ekklesia of Christ.

On the surface this seems plausible, however, under further examination, this proves to be a wrong assumption.

What is the definition of “ekklesia”

The Greek word "ekklesia" which is often translated “church” in the New Testament, means "a gathering of citizens called out from their homes into a public place--an assembly or any gathering or throng of men assembled by chance, tumultuously."¹

In Volume Four of Dr. Norman Geisler’s “Systematic Theology” he states:

“In classical Greek, ekklesia referred to an assembly of any kind, religious or secular, lawful or unlawful.  The Hebrew words qahal and edhal, often translated as ‘ekklesia’ in the Greek Old Testament, meant a gathering or assembly such as Judaism eventually had in the synogague²

The Greek word ekklesia occurs in the following scripture passages:

• The word is used in Acts 19:32,41 of an assembly (ekklesia) of Diana worshippers. 
• It is used in Acts 19:39 as a "lawful" assembly (ekklesia) or court which could be gathered to hear the matters against Paul.\
• It is used in the above referenced passage (Acts 7:38) by Stephen referring to the assembly (ekklesia) of Israelites in the wilderness, who as a nation (not individually) were the people of God.  (See: The "Church" in the Wilderness) 
• In the Septuagint (LXX--Greek translation of the Old Testament) it is used of the Israelites in one big group and sometimes of specific smaller groups.  Throughout the Old Testament there was always a remnant that were truly the people of God while the rest of the nation were not. 
• In the LXX it is used in 1 Samuel 19:20 of an ekklesia of prophets. 
• In the LXX it is used in Psalm 26:5 for an ekklesia of evil doers 
• And finally in the New Testament it is used to refer to a specific ekklesia, The Ekklesia belonging to the Lord Jesus Christ.  

Due to the above, just because the Greek word “ekklesia” is used doesn’t automatically mean it is referring to the Ekklesia of Christ which is a specific ekklesia.

The Ekklesia belonging to Christ

The first mention of Christ’s Ekklesia is a quite famous passage in Matthew 16:18 where Jesus states “And I say also unto thee, that thou art Peter (a stone), and upon this (large) rock I will build my church (ekklesia); and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.”

This is a specific ekklesia, Christ’s Ekklesia.  It is built on the foundation of the Apostles and Jesus as the chief cornerstone.  (Ephesians 2:20).  This could not have existed before Christ.  Jesus states--future tense--that He WILL build His Ekklesia.  It is important to note that He also does not say that this would be adding to something that already existed. 

According to 1 Corinthians 12:13, this Ekklesia is made up of believers ONLY who are baptized by ONE Spirit into ONE body.

“For by one Spirit are we all baptized into ONE body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free, and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.  For the body is not one member, but many.”

As indicated in Ephesians 1:19-23, the resurrection was a prerequisite for the existence of the Ekklesia.  He became the head of the Ekklesia by virtue of His resurrection

“And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power.  Which He wrought in Christ, when he raised Him from the dead and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly place, Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, built also in that which is to come.  And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the Church (Ekklesia), which is his body, the fullness of him that filleth all in all.”

The modern day division of the Ekklesia

Although understanding our Jewish Roots is a beneficial and even essential, there is a difference between understanding our Jewish Roots and going back(wards) to our Jewish roots.  Understanding our Jewish Roots builds up the church and helps to unify it, but going backwards divides it in two. 

Unfortunately, many who began with a love for the Jewish people and both a desire to understand their Jewish Roots and fellowship with Jewish believers gradually move from this scriptural pursuit and begin to adopt nonscriptural doctrines and practices.

As stated earlier, Covenant Theology teaches  that the Ekklesia of Christ has always existed as the People of God.  However now the reverse is being taught by many (not all) messianic groups & organizations, Jewish Roots teachers and Two-House proponents.  Like the Covenant Theologians they teach that there has always only been one “People of God,” however in contrast to Covenant Theology they believe it always has been, is now, and always will be Israel.

The single characteristic common to both Covenant Theologians and many Messianc/Jewish Roots/Two House teachers is that they DO NOT believe that the Ekklesia of Christ is a separately entity. 

But as shown earlier, the ekklesia is indeed a separate entity which began after the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ.

The resulting situation amounts to the opposite of what occurred in the 2^nd century Gentile dominated church, these groups insist that Gentiles need to become like the Jewish Messianic believers, or in the case of Two-House teaching, that Gentile believers actually ARE descendents of Joseph and Ephraim, if not physically, at least in a spiritual sense.

Eventually, many of these believers voluntarily segregate themselves from other believers by  attending Messianic Congregations only, and distancing themselves from anything relating to what is often referred to as the “Gentile Church.”  

The majority of believers attending those Messianic congregations are Gentiles with just a small percentage of Jewish believers.  In his book “Messianic Judaism Is Not Christianity:  A Loving Call to Unity,” Stan Telchin, a Messianic Jew and retired pastor of 14 years states:

“As reported by almost all who have experienced these (messianic) congregations, the overwhelming majority—sometimes as much as 85 to 90 percent of the attendees—are Gentiles.” ³

In his book, he relates a number of testimonies by people who have attended Messianic Synagogues attended by large numbers of Gentiles.  He states that based upon what he had observed over the years in Messianic congregations, “God’s love and grace are secondary to the emphasis upon Jewishness.”⁴

He also quotes a woman who had attended a Messianic Synagogue for over two years with her Jewish husband who states:  “Week after week I would anguish over the emphasis on Jewishness rather than “Jesusness.” ⁵

Although the Gentiles joining with some Jewish believers can be seen as a step in the right direction these groups still have gone off in an unscriptural direction.   Some of the Gentile believers in these groups feel that to be a Gentile is to be a second class believer.  Many seem to be so enamored by the symbols, customs, celebrations and all that is part of Judaism that they as Gentiles are jealous of the Jews and want to become like them. 

Provoke to Jealousy?

In direct contrast, Romans 11:11 states that “Salvation has come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them (the Jews) to jealousy”   Dr. Arnold Fruchtenbaum explains that the Greek word “parazelao” which is translated “provoke them to jealousy” is a combination of two Greek words “para, meaning “to come alongside of” and “zelos” meaning “to cause to burn, to seethe, to make red hot, to flame, to envy.”

“The picture is that the Gentile Christian is to come alongside a Jew (para) in daily contact and to live such a life and be such a witness that the Jew will begin to burn with red hot envy (zelos) so that he will want the very thing the Gentile Christian has:  The Jewish Messiah.⁶ 

The Solution—True Unity

By dividing the body of Christ into two, the Ekklesia has lost spiritual blessings, fellowship with Jewish believers, doctrinal unity and possibly even effectiveness. 

In his book “Hebrew Christianity,” Dr. Fruchtenbaum lists a number things Christ’s Ekklesia has lost because of separating the body of Christ in two and should become a part of the Ekklesia once again:

1)  The ability of the Jewish believers to contribute to the growth of the church through the use of his or her spiritual gifts.

2)  The ability to educate the Gentile believers in their obligation to the Jew and Jewish missions.

3)  A Jewish perspective on scriptures. There are many passages of Scripture which are peculiarly Jewish and which only a person with a Jewish background would be able to explain, such as the two cups mentioned in Luke 22:14-20 in connection with the Passover.  His very presence is a witness to the Jewishness of the Christian faith, of the Scriptures, and of the Savior.

4)  The Jew in the church can be the discerner between the teaching and mores in the church that are truly scriptural and those that are not.  He can be the one to distinguish between what is biblical and what is really a product of Gentile culture.

5)  The Jew can stem the tide of anti-Semitism by teaching what God feels about one’s attitude to the Jews and by teaching the church how to receive the Hebrew Christian and be sensitive to his problems as new believers.⁷

Jesus never intended for His body to be divided into two halves.  He defines His desire for true unity in John 17:17 when He prayed “Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; that they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us.” 

The Apostle Paul also describes this unity in Ephesians 4:1-13

“I therefore, the prisoner of the Lord, beseech you that ye walk worthy of the vocation (calling) wherewith ye are called…Endeavoring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace— 

--There is one body 

--One Spirit 

--One Lord 

--One Faith 

--One Baptism 

--One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all… 

And he gave some, apostles, and some prophets; and some evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers for the edifying of the body of Christ till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ.

Who knows how history may have been changed in the last 2000 years by a united Ekklesia of Jewish and Gentile believers serving Christ as one body, the One New Man energized by the Holy Spirit, equipped with the Word of God and proclaiming the Gospel  to the world.   It’s not too late to start now!

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Works Cited

^1”ekklesia.” def 1(c).   BlueLetterBible.org. Web.

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1577&t=KJV

²Geisler, Norman.  Systematic Theology:  Volume Four – Church, Last Things. pg 17.  Minneapolis:  Bethany House. 2005.  Print.

³Telchin, Stan.  Messianic Judaism is not Christianity:  A Loving Call to Unity.  pg 70.  Michigan:  Chosen Books. 2004.  Print.

⁴ibid, pg 84

⁵ibid, pg 85

⁶Fruchtenbaum, Arnold.  Israelology:  The Missing Link in Systematic Theology.  pg 639.  California:  Ariel Ministries. 1989. Print.

⁷Fruchtenbaum, Arnold.  Hebrew Christianity:  It’s Theology, History & Philosophy.  pg. 96.  Texas:  Ariel Ministries. 1983. Print.

⁸ibid, pg 95